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04-13-2006, 07:24 AM #1
Senior Member
Philosophy
Dude, modus ponens and modus tollens aren't fallacies, they're two of the most basic forms of valid logic. I think you're confusing "affirming the antecedent" and "denying the consequent" for "denying the antecedent" and "affirming the consequent".
Originally Posted by mrdevious
Modus Ponens
If A then B
A
Therefore B
Modus Tollens
If A then B
~B (not B)
Therefore ~A
A Fallacy along these lines would be either:
A->B, B, therefore A
Or A->B, ~A, therefore ~B
On another note, which I'm surely guilty of now as well, way to overemphasize syntax instead of semantics...
Penguin, if you want to learn, try a more directed question... :thumbsup:Polymirize Reviewed by Polymirize on . Philosophy Hey all. I really want to learn as much about philosophy I possibly can before I ever set foot in a college classroom...which is 3 years off for me...So, I was wondering, could anyone who is very knowledgeable on the subject teach me anything? Thanks much, Jake Rating: 5
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