So, bottom line, because a patient doesn't pay a yearly fee, that non payment does not and cannot invalidate their doctor's signed authorization. Or is the authorization invalidated because under the law, doc in the boxes aren't legal?

Or, because it was signed by a doctor licensed to practice medicine, regardless of how a patient gets to them, the authorization is valid, then doctor cannot be charged for dishonest services because his corporate entity was the original violator of the law? Ignorance of the law is no excuse, but I cannot see how a court could reasonably invalidate an authorization under these parameters since an initial fee was paid believing it was valid with no expiration date in compliance with RCW 69.51a and signed by a licensed doctor. :wtf:

Many inquiring minds need to know? I-1068 would undo all these legal gymnastics.