Hypothertical question concerning at home tests...

Hey everyone, I just wanted ask a hypothetical question about a person passing a drug test... :1baa:

Say this person was a pretty heavy user, like nearly every day for months at a time, with a week off here and there... but relatively healthy and active (5'6, 130lb)...

Say they stopped everyday smoking April 23 (alittle over a month ago)...

BUT relapsed and split a modest blizzie with a friend exactly 3 weeks and 2 days ago today...

Say this person has consistently tested negative (with ranges from faint to decently solid negative lines) on cheapy at home pee stick test, even on first pee in the morning...

SOOO given these facts, would they likely pass a pre-employment/lab test tomorrow at noon?

Thanks for the input on this hypothetical question!

no thoughts anyone!? pretty please, help a girl out.. its for a class ;)

the cheap at home tests are pretty much the same tests they use in the first phase of the lab test.

If a person has consistently passing home tests with the first-mornings void, s/he is good to go.

thanks both of you :) ... altho I am still skeptical of the accuracy of cheap home test compared to lab test...

nonetheless, i will inform the forum how this hypothetical might turn out if tested under life like circumstances...

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I am still skeptical of the accuracy of cheap home test compared to lab test

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Even though a sample is sent to a lab, an initial assay screen is performed first.
The lab assays function on the same principle as the home assays. Therefore, neither are more accurate than the other.

So the sample is only sent to a lab if the initial screening fails?

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Originally Posted by Eponine

So the sample is only sent to a lab if the initial screening fails?

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In many cases, a sample is automatically sent to a lab for both the initial screen as well as the confirmation test (confirmation test being used due to a non-negative on the initial screen). The reason for this is because many collection facilities are not certified to conduct any analysis - they are only certified to collect the specimens.

new facts to the scenario... Say labcorp didn't divide the pee sample...the tech just had the person initial the cup that was peed in... what would that mean? anything?

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Originally Posted by Eponine

new facts to the scenario... Say labcorp didn't divide the pee sample...the tech just had the person initial the cup that was peed in... what would that mean? anything?

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It only means that you have a "single sample collection", as opposed to a "split-sample collection".

No big deal.