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eccentric
05-28-2010, 03:18 AM
I've had a legal question nagging at me and maybe someone can clarify. I've always seen drug illegality as an unconstitutional invasion of privacy. (It's a totally victim-less "crime", so if it isn't unconstitutional it should be.)

I'm confused though because it took a full constitutional amendment to make alcohol illegal, and then another to make it legal again. I thought this was because it was understood then to be unconstitutional to simply make it illegal via federal law. How is pot or any other drug any different. Why did alcohol take a constitutional amendment, and pot is illegal over mere hand waving, rhetoric, and popular opinion/myth?

eccentric
06-09-2010, 08:50 AM
Yes. Does anybody have an answer? Basically:

Why did it take a consitutional ammendment to make alchohol illegal during prohibition, but weed is illegal without such an ammendment? It seems to be the exact same basic issue...

gypski
06-09-2010, 04:13 PM
The answer is simple. The powers that be can do whatever they damn well please, regardless whether scientific evidence proves what they do to be an injustice against the people. The only freedom we have any more is to believe we have freedoms to chose for ourselves. But then we are only deluding ourselves. Time to take our rights back through the ballot box or in any other way possible. And cannabis liberation is just one right we need to liberate from them. :thumbsup: