eccentric
05-28-2010, 03:18 AM
I've had a legal question nagging at me and maybe someone can clarify. I've always seen drug illegality as an unconstitutional invasion of privacy. (It's a totally victim-less "crime", so if it isn't unconstitutional it should be.)
I'm confused though because it took a full constitutional amendment to make alcohol illegal, and then another to make it legal again. I thought this was because it was understood then to be unconstitutional to simply make it illegal via federal law. How is pot or any other drug any different. Why did alcohol take a constitutional amendment, and pot is illegal over mere hand waving, rhetoric, and popular opinion/myth?
I'm confused though because it took a full constitutional amendment to make alcohol illegal, and then another to make it legal again. I thought this was because it was understood then to be unconstitutional to simply make it illegal via federal law. How is pot or any other drug any different. Why did alcohol take a constitutional amendment, and pot is illegal over mere hand waving, rhetoric, and popular opinion/myth?